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Hehe this is algrebraic proof that 2=1First of all:a=ba>0a²=ab=b²which means thata²-b²=ab-b²which we can factorise to(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)which we can simplify to(a+b)=bso thereforeb+b=bor2b=1bwhich simplifies to2=1Now tell me why this little trick works.
I think I just got stupider...I hate math...
The man in black fled across the desert, and the gunslinger followed.Mapping Bungie's world domination
Posted by: lobsterokHehe this is algrebraic proof that 2=1First of all:a=ba>0a²=ab=b²which means thata²-b²=ab-b²which we can factorise to(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)which we can simplify to(a+b)=bso thereforeb+b=bor2b=1bwhich simplifies to2=1Now tell me why this little trick works.Because you did your math wrong. You cannot divide by zero (even 0/0 is undefined).
Posted by: lobsterokHehe this is algrebraic proof that 2=1First of all:a=ba>0a²=ab=b²which means thata²-b²=ab-b²which we can factorise to(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)which we can simplify to(a+b)=bso thereforeb+b=bor2b=1bwhich simplifies to2=1Now tell me why this little trick works.The very first thing you put was that a=busing that logic ifa=b and a=me and b=youthenme=youomg we are the same person
Posted by: Metal NutzThe very first thing you put was that a=busing that logic ifa=b and a=me and b=youthenme=youomg we are the same personSo funny metal nutz! great proof!
Posted by: dmbfan09Because you did your math wrong. You cannot divide by zero (even 0/0 is undefined).Correct. You would surprised how many times people think that their life is a lie after seeing that.
Thats nothing, i've seen worse.let's just say a group of 20 nerds attacked and ate one another after seeing it.We still haven't got the blood off the blackboard.
[quote]Posted by: lobsterokHehe this is algrebraic proof that 2=1First of all:a=ba>0a²=ab=b²which means thata²-b²=ab-b²which we can factorise to(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)which we can simplify to(a+b)=bso thereforeb+b=bor2b=1bwhich simplifies to2=1You have way to much time on your hands get a life just kidding but seriously why did you do that
what is the sum of the angles in a regular octigon
Posted by: buzzylinguardowhat is the sum of the angles in a regular octigon1080°[Edited on 2/1/2005 12:05:22 PM]
Posted by: buzzylinguardowhat is the sum of the angles in a regular octigon360edit: I was way off, thinking of the wrong thing[Edited on 2/1/2005 12:12:11 PM]
Ummm..................Is this supposed to be a joke or did this guy really think this? In Chaos Theory Mathemtics yes 1=2 but it is a much more massive formula that would take up 2 threads at 1000 posts each, and that's just the formula not your work.[Edited on 2/1/2005 11:47:22 AM]
I've seen it before, I doubt he was the first to think it up. But if you did, good job.The first one to show it to me was my Uncle, a college math teacher.
1 = .999999999 repeatingproof1/3 = .333333333 repeatingthen(1/3)*3 = (.333333333 repeating)*3so1 = .999999999 repeating
Posted by: Metal Nutz1 = .999999999 repeatingproof1/3 = .333333333 repeatingthen(1/3)*3 = (.333333333 repeating)*3so1 = .999999999 repeatinginteresting......
Posted by: Metal Nutz1 = .999999999 repeatingproof1/3 = .333333333 repeatingthen(1/3)*3 = (.333333333 repeating)*3so1 = .999999999 repeating1 - 0.00000000001 = .999999999 or so, not reapeating. I can see your method yes but the logic is just not there.
(1/3)*3 = 3/3 = 11/3 is approximately .33333333333 repeating, but it is exactly 1/3.And by the way, to determine the interior angles of a polygon, the equation is 180°(n-2), where n is the number of sides.
Yeah, another way of looking at that is this:1/3 + 2/3 = 3/3, or 1, right?1/3 = .3333333 Repeating.2/3 = .6666666 Repeating.So if 3/3 = 1, and 3/3 = .33333 etc. + .66666 etc, 1 = .9999999 Repeating.
ALLRIGHT THEN LOOK: This is the most simple rule of all algebra. OBSERVE CLOSELY: a=a
DMUKYAProud member of Eagle 117's theory group, The WatchersAnother great theorist group is AvignonInterested in the mysteries within all of Bungie's games? Check out Theory of UnificationFor the Biblical allegorist in you, there's מִכְמַןEnjoy reading or writing sci-fi or fantasy? Come to New Horizons
Now, I find one horrible math paradox. Every number divided by itself equals 1 right? But 0 cannot be in the denominator of a fraction. You cannot divide a number by 0 because it is undefined. Yet, 0/0 by the first law, should equal 1. Despite the second law, think about this logically. You have one nothings. How many nothings are there in one nothings? One. I can also argue the other side if you like.PS. If you saw me last night on the Time Travel thread, you would know that I divide my time equally between Bungie and universal paradoxes.[Edited on 2/1/2005 12:31:29 PM]
Posted by: EnderNow, I find one horrible math paradox. Every number divided by itself equals 1 right? But 0 cannot be in the denominator of a fraction. You cannot divide a number by 0 because it is undefined. Yet, 0/0 by the first law, should equal 1. Despite the second law, think about this logically. You have one nothings. How many nothings are there in one nothings? One. I can also argue the other side if you like.Of course, 0/(any number) = 0, so 0/0 should equal 1 and it should equal 0, so it is undefined.
You know what? I even brought that up with my friend who's in Trig, and he didn't even remember to point out that 0/x = 0.
Posted by: EnderYou know what? I even brought that up with my friend who's in Trig, and he didn't even remember to point out that 0/x = 0.It just goes to show you that mechanical engineers know everything. Muhahahahaha *cough* ha *cough* ha.... OK, maybe not everything.
I just hate algebra.......
Posted by: lobsterokHehe this is algrebraic proof that 2=1First of all:a=ba>0a²=ab=b²which means thata²-b²=ab-b²which we can factorise to(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)which we can simplify to(a+b)=bso thereforeb+b=bor2b=1bwhich simplifies to2=1Now tell me why this little trick works.it's wrong. if a²=ab=b², then a=b, a=1 and b=1 (a²=ab=b²)=(1x1=1x1=1x1)=1a²=abab=b²a²=b²it means if a²=ab and ab=b², then a²=b²