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Subject: Proof that 2=1
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Posted by: lobsterok
Hehe this is algrebraic proof that 2=1

First of all:

a²-b²=ab-b²
which we can factorise to
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)


Wrong... (a+b)(a+b) multiplies out to a^2+b^2+2ab...

  • 02.01.2005 1:07 PM PDT
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I thought they changed the rule that anything devided by zero is undifined, to anything devided by zero is infinate

like how many times does nothing go into something = infinate because it would take an infinate number of nothings to = something. Of course infinity x 0 = 0 therefore anything devided by zero is zero.

umm I just contradicted myself in my own post.

  • 02.01.2005 1:09 PM PDT

Posted by: Texas Ben
Posted by: lobsterok
Hehe this is algrebraic proof that 2=1

First of all:

a²-b²=ab-b²
which we can factorise to
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)


Wrong... (a+b)(a+b) multiplies out to a^2+b^2+2ab...

You are correct and wrong. You are correct because (a+b)(a+b)=a²+b²+2ab, but you are wrong because he said a²-b²=(a+b)(a-b).

Edit: And Metal Nutz, you might be thinking of x/∞=0, not x/0=∞.


[Edited on 2/1/2005 1:26:22 PM]

  • 02.01.2005 1:18 PM PDT

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